GEOS 100 FINAL
EXAM
Instructor: Delwar Ahmed
NAME:
___________________ CRS ID __
__ __ __
Read the instructions carefully!
Instructions:
1. Don’t put your SS# on the scantron/answer sheet.
Write your Course ID# in place of SS#. If you don’t write that, your grades may
not be posted. 2. Fill the circles on scantron properly. If you don’t you might
not get credit for a correct answer!
Correct answers are highlighted in
green.
1 Point each.
1. [T F] The study of all science is based on the assumption that the natural world behaves in a consistent and predictable manner that is comprehensible through careful and systematic study.
2. [T F] Scientific hypothesis is a tentative/untested explanation.
3. A ‘scientific method’ could be described as all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a method to sort truth from falsehood
B) organized common sense
C)
something
only scientists can use
D) able to evolve in light of new data
E) testing ideas systematically using real world
4. [T F] The earth is about 4.6 billion years old.
5. The earth system is powered by energy from two sources: ___________ and ________.
A) friction/wind
B) the Sun/internal combustion
C)
the
Sun/Earth’s interior
D) tidal power/fossil fuels
E) none of the above
6. All silicate minerals contain which two elements? One answer
A) iron, silicon
B) silicon, magnesium
C) oxygen, carbon
D)
silicon,oxygen
7. [T F] Rocks are aggregates of one or more minerals.
8. The most common mineral group is ______________.
A) carbonates
B) oxides
C)
silicates
D) sulfides
E) oxygen and silicon
9. Which of the following is not a part of the definition of mineral?
A)
must
contain silicon-oxygen
B) must occur naturally
C) must be a solid
D) must be inorganic
E) must have definite chemical composition
10. Which of the following is the least reliable property to use when identifying a mineral?
A) streak
B) luster
C)
color
D) hardness
E) specific gravity
11. [T F] Graphite and diamond have the same chemical compositions and different crystalline structures.
12. The classification of igneous rocks are based on:
A) chemical composition
B) number of ions in the bond
C) texture
D)
A and C only
E) A and B only
13. Rocks can be transformed from:
A) sedimentary to metamorphic
B) igneous to new igneous
C) igneous to sedimentary
D) metamorphic to sedimentary
E)
All of
the above
14. Felsic rocks are:
A)
light
colored
B) contain high amounts of iron and magnesium
C) have a higher specific gravity than non-ferromags
D) A and B only
E) A and C only
15. The factor/factors that help produce the texture of intrusive igneous rocks:
A) amount of dissolved gases in magma
B) the rate of cooling
C) amount of silica present
D)
all of
the above
E) only B and C
16. Fast cooled magma produces what kind of texture?
A) phaneritic
B) pyroclastic
C)
glassy
D) aphanitic
E) porpyritic
17. Which rock type contains most quartz?
A) Basalt
B)
granite
C) komatite
D) andesite
E) gabbro
18. What is the layer of rock and mineral fragments produced by weathering?
A) Soil
B) Humus
C)
Regolith
D) Subsoil
E) Zone of accumulation
19. Which of these is a component of soil?
A) Water
B) Humus
C) Disintegrated and decomposed rock
D) Decayed organic matter
E)
All of
the above
20. [T F] Frost wedging is a type of mechanical weathering.
21. [T F] Hydrolysis and dissolution are synonymous.
22. Chemical weathering includes only:
A) Hydrolysis
B) Dissolution
C) Oxidation
D)
All of
the above
E) Only A and C
23. From the land surface downward to the unweathered bedrock, which is the correct order of the soil horizons?
A)
O, A,
E, B, C, bedrock
B) A, B, C, D, E, bedrock
C) E, A, B, C, O, bedrock
D) D, E, C, B, A, bedrock
24. [T F] Clay and mud sediments lithify to shales and mudstones.
25. [T F] Conglomerate and breccia are composed of rounded grains of sediments more than 2 mm (gravel sized) in diameter.
26. [T F] Chemical sedimentary rocks have clastic textures.
27. Detrital sedimentary rocks are classified on what basis?
A) Color of the cementing material
B) Composition of the precipitated mineral
C)
Grain
sizes of the clastic particles
D) Degree of lithification
28. What is the most common mineral found in chemical sedimentary rocks?
A) Quartz
B)
Calcite
C) Oxide
D) Feldspars
29. [T F] Peat is thought to be the original material from which coal forms.
30. [T F] Slate and schists are both derived by metamorphism of shales and mudstones.
31. [T F] Calcite is the main mineral constituent of the sedimentary rock limestone and of the metamorphic rock marble.
32. Which textural term denotes a strong, parallel alignment of coarse mica flakes and/or of different mineral bands in a metamorphic rock?
A) Rock cleavage
B)
Foliation
C) Stress streaking
D) Marbleizing
E) Rock glazing
33. A metamorphic aureole is a zone of:
A) Contact metamorphic rock
B)
Contact
metamorphism
C) Intrusive body of rock
D) Movie theater in a volcano
34. [T F] Most sedimentary rocks are easily dated by radiometric dating methods.
35. [T F] Geologic time scale is totally based on relative dating of sedimentary rocks found exposed on Earth.
36. The law of superposition states that:
A) Any geological feature cross-cutting another feature is younger than the feature it is cutting across
B) In terms of position, younger layers is in front and older in the back
C) In a sequence of thin to thick beds, thick beds are older and thin beds are younger
D)
In an
undisturbed geologic sequence, as you go upwards starting from the bottom, the
beds become younger and younger
E) In an undisturbed geologic sequence, the beds at the bottom are younger than the beds at top
37. The half-life for a radioactive isotope is:
A) The time it takes for the isotope to travel one half distance around the globe
B) The time it takes for the isotope to go up into the atmosphere and come down to the surface
C)
The
time it takes for the isotope to become half of what was before
D) The time for an isotope to get reduced by half in terms of quality
Use Figure 1 A & B (attached with this test) to answer Q 38 and 39
Hint: 50%-50% has a ratio of
1:1, 25%-75% has a ratio of 1:3.
38. A radioactive isotope has a half life of 40,000 years. The ratio of radioactive parent to stable daughter product is 1:7. How old is the rock?
A) 1,200
B) 12,000
C)
120,000
D) 1200,000
39. How many half-lives have elapsed for the radioactive isotope in Q 38 if the ratio is 1:3?
A) 0
B) 1
C)
2
D) 3
E) 4
40. Which best describes unconformity?
A)
Buried,
erosional surface with younger strata above and older rocks below
B) The lower contact of an intrusive sill with sedimentary strata
C) A fault with younger, sedimentary rocks above older, igneous rocks
D) Contact between a cross-cutting intrusive igneous body and sedimentary rocks
41. [T F] Disconformity is that type of unconformity where the contact is between a sedimentary and an igneous or metamorphic rock.
42. [T F] Slump describes the very slow, downhill movement of soil and regolith.
43. Which one of the following is always triggered by earthquake?
A) Slump
B)
Rock
avalanche
C) Soil creep
D) Mud flow
44. Which mass wasting process has the fastest movement?
A) Slump
B) Slide
C) Flow
D)
Avalanche
45. [T F] Water infiltrates down to the water table from gaining streams.
46. Which common rock forming mineral or mineral group is readily dissolved by groundwater?
A) quartz
B) feldspars
C) clays
D)
calcite
47. [T F] Porosity is the measure of ability of water to flow through a porous subsurface material composed of soil and alluvium.
48. [T F] The water table is the surface separating the saturated and unsaturated zones.
49. [T F] Water saturated muds have low permeabilities but can have high porosities than sandstones.
50.
[T F] Warm springs
in the
51. Which response best describes an aquifer?
A) The porous and permeable, saturated cone of depression in an aquitard
B)
A
saturated, porous, and permeable layer or stratum
C) A layer or stratum in which groundwater flows downward to the water table
D) An unsaturated, influent-flow bed or stratum below a spring
52. [T F] Artesian condition can develop in an inclined aquifer with aquitards above and below.
53. Which statement about the aerated zone is true?
A) Lies below water table
B) Is a well-oxygenated, shallow aquifer
C)
Lies
above water table
D) Lies below the capillary fringe zone
54. [T F] Crevasses are short, narrow cracks in the plastic flow zone of a glacier that alternately open and close as the ice flows along.
55. We had a peak of glaciation about ___________ years ago.
A) 180,000
B)
18,000
C) 1,800
D) 180
56. Which one of the following statement about glaciers is not true?
A) Piedmont glaciers form on lowlands at the base of mountainous terrain
B) Ice sheets are larger than ice caps
C)
The
volume of water tied up in Antarctic ice sheet is about the same as the total
discharge of the
D)
Long, extended, alpine glaciers occupied valleys in most high
mountainous areas in the
57. Which moraine is formed from merging of two lateral moraines at a junction of two valley glaciers?
A) Terminal
B) Kettle
C) Recessional
D) Ground
E)
Medial
58. Which erosional feature is specifically formed by Alpine glaciers?
A)
Hanging
valley
B) Drumlin
C) Lateral moraine
D) Outwash plain
59.
Where is the world’s largest continental ice sheet?
B)
The
60. [T F] A playa is an intermittent lake on the floor of a desert valley.
61. [T F] Inselbergs are indications that the desert landscape is still in a very young stage of development.
62. Abrasion by wind-blown sand forms _______________.
A)
Ventifact
B) Playa
C) Pediment
D) Sand dunes
63. Which dunes result from persistent, onshore winds in some coastal areas?
A) Barchanoid
B)
Parabolic
C) Star
D) Diabolic
64. [T F] A baymouth bar is a manmade feature designed to stop incoming storm waves before they impact on the beach.
65. [T F] Elevated wave-cut platforms are good evidence of emergent coastlines.
66. When does a deep water wave change to shallow water wave?
A) Only when the wave period is greater than one-half the water depth
B)
Only
when the wavelength is about twice the water depth
C) Only when the period is greater than twice the water depth
D) Only when the wavelength is about one-half the water depth
67. [T F] As waves move into beach area, they change to waves of translation from waves of oscillation.
68. Incoming waves slow down and rotate toward being parallel to the shoreline. What term denotes this process?
A) Translation
B) Relaxation
C)
Refraction
D) Reflection
69. [T F] In a normal fault, the hanging wall block moves up relative to the footwall block.
70. [T F] The oldest, sedimentary rock strata are exposed along the axial parts of deeply eroded anticlines.
71. [T F] Normal faults form in response to horizontal, compressional stresses that shortens the rocks.
72. [T F] Horizontal, extensional deformation involves shortening and thickening of the crust.
73. [T F] Fractures in rock that have been involved in fault slippage are called joints.
74. San Andreas transform fault marks the boundary between which two plates?
A) Indian and Pacific plate
B)
Eurasian and
C)
North
American and Pacific plate
D) Australian and Indian plate
75. Which one describes a reverse fault?
A) The hanging wall block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block
B)
The
foot wall block below an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the
other block
C) The hanging wall block above an inclined fault plane moves downward relative to the other block
D) The foot wall block above an inclined fault plane moves upward relative to the other block
76. Which two permanent strains (deformations) in rocks are products of horizontally directed, tensional stresses? One answer
A) Normal faults, crustal thickening
B)
Normal
faults, crustal shortening/thinning
C) Reverse faults, crustal thickening
D) Reverse faults, crustal shortening/thinning
77. Which two factors favor brittle deformation over plastic deformation? One answer
A) Deep burial, cool temperature
B)
Shallow
depths, cool temperature
C) Deep burial, warm temperature
D) Shallow depth, warm temperature
78. Transform faults have mainly what type of movement?
A)
Strike
slip
B) Dip slip
C) Basal dip
D) Straight slip
79. [T F] S waves can’t travel through liquids.
80. [T F] Focus of an earthquake is the point on the surface directly above the epicenter.
81. [T F] If the P and S waves arrive almost simultaneously, the seismic recording station is virtually right at the epicenter of the earthquake.
82. Which is the term used to denote the rupture point of an earthquake?
A) Epicenter
B)
Focus
C) Epizone
D) Centroid
83. [T F] Unconsolidated, water-saturated soils or sediments provide good foundation material for buildings and other engineering structures.
84. What are the smaller magnitude quakes that follow a major earthquake?
A) Foreshocks
B) Hyposhocks
C)
Aftershocks
D) Shock absorbers
E) Epishocks
85. Which is a direct measure of distance between a seismic recording station and the focal point of a distant earthquake?
A)
The
time interval between the first P-wave and S-wave arrivals
B) The height of the P-wave minus the height of the S-wave
C) The difference between the Richter scale magnitude at the epicenter and receiving station
D) The time it takes S-waves to travel through the core
86. [T F] The inner core is probably composed liquid iron because it has the characteristics of a permanent magnet.
87. [T F] Oceanic crust is mainly composed of felsic material which is light in color.
88. [T F] On the basis of seismic evidence, the outer core is believed to be solid.
89. The discontinuity at the crust mantle boundary is known as ________.
A) Moto
B) Mojo
C)
Moho
D) Mogo
90. Which part of the solid earth has the smallest volume?
A) Outer core
B) Mantle
C)
Crust
D) Inner core
91. [T F] The oldest rocks in the sea floor are much younger than the oldest rocks of the continents.
92. [T F] Earth’s radius and surface area are slowly shrinking as a result of subduction at colliding plate boundaries.
93.
[T F]
94.
[T F] The
95. __________ _____________ vigorously promoted the idea of continental drift to the scientific community in the early decades of twentieth century.
A) Robert Wagner
B)
Alfred
Wegener
C) John wegner
D) Alfred Krupp
96. Which one of the following is an important, fundamental assumption underlying the plate tectonic theory?
A)
Earth’s
diameter has been essentially constant over time
B) Earth’s magnetic field originates in the outer core
C) Earth’s ocean basins are very old and stable
D) Radioactive decay slows down at the extreme pressure in the inner core
97. Which one best describes Mariana’s trench in the Pacific?
A) A boundary between colliding continents on converging plates
B)
A
boundary between two colliding plates where a denser plate is being subducted
beneath a lighter plate
C) A boundary between two sliding plates
D)
A location in the
98. The components of the Earth’s System are: One answer
A)
Atmosphere,
biosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere
B) Atmosphere, biosphere, stratosphere, and hydrosphere
C) Atmosphere, stratosphere, zoosphere, and geosphere
D) Atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and zoosphere
99. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A) Ch4 methane
B) CO2 carbon dioxide
C) CFC chlorofluorocarbon
D)
MnO2
manganese dioxide
100. [T F] Coal, natural gas, and crude oil are fossil fuels.
